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CHOP
Volume 2.2, 2.3 & 2.4

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18

2.2 Sample Forms for the Management of the Practice

Please fill out the form to start the quiz. Good luck!

1 / 30

How are expense claim forms used as a management tool for project budgeting?

2 / 30

True or false: Receipts for expenses are usually attached to the Expense Claim Form to substantiate expense claims.

3 / 30

What is the architect's fee during the construction administration phase if the contract amount is $226,000 and the GST is 5%?

4 / 30

True or false: Time sheets should include tabulation of daily and weekly activities by hours.

5 / 30

Which of the following is NOT an example of a form used by most architectural practices?

6 / 30

How many weeks of vacation per year are recommended for all employees?

7 / 30

What information should be included in an invoice?

8 / 30

What is the purpose of expense claim forms?

9 / 30

True or false: The purpose of expense claim forms includes being a management tool for project budgeting.

10 / 30

What should be attached to the Expense Claim Form to substantiate expense claims?

11 / 30

According to the Canadian Handbook of Practice for Architects, what should an architect do if they are unsure about the preservation of evidence?

12 / 30

True or false: Employee and supervisor signatures are not required on a time sheet.

13 / 30

Which section in an Employment Agreement should an employee carefully consider, especially in a small or remote location?

14 / 30

True or false: The Expense Claim Form must always be coordinated with the Office Manual to ensure fair and current allowances for travel, meals, etc.

15 / 30

What is the purpose of including employee and supervisor signatures on a time sheet?

16 / 30

Which one of these is the most correct?

17 / 30

True or false: Time sheets should include tabulation of daily and weekly activities by hours.

18 / 30

What is the fee earned for services rendered to date if the completion of the construction contract is at 60% and the contract amount is $226,000?

19 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the forms provided in this section?

20 / 30

Which of the following information should NOT be requested on an Application Form, according to human rights codes and employment standards acts?

21 / 30

Which of the following information should be included in every time sheet?

22 / 30

What is the purpose of an Interview Evaluation Form?

23 / 30

How many days are in a normal work week?

24 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a form used for financial management?

25 / 30

According to the text, how many weeks are in a normal work year?

26 / 30

What is the estimated cost of construction at the working drawing stage if the estimate at the design stage was $200,000 and the successful bidder's tender was $218,000?

27 / 30

What is the typical length of a probationary period in an Employment Agreement?

28 / 30

What should an architect do if they are unsure about stating an opinion?

29 / 30

What should be included in the Office Manual regarding the use of the forms?

30 / 30

What is the duration of a normal workday?

Your score is

The average score is 61%

/30
20

2.3.1 Management of the Project

Please fill out the form to start the quiz. Good luck!

1 / 30

True or false: An effective project manager in architecture should always prioritize budget control over achieving high design standards

2 / 30

What is one of the key responsibilities of an effective project manager in architecture?

3 / 30

Which of the following is NOT covered in this chapter?

4 / 30

For large and complex projects, how many people typically participate in the same task?

5 / 30

True or false: An effective project manager in architecture should have a conscious sense of time and be aware of task deadlines

6 / 30

True or false: An effective project manager in architecture should only listen to team members and not consider the opinions of others involved in a project

7 / 30

Which publication is NOT referenced in the text?

8 / 30

What is the project manager responsible for when coordinating engineers and other consultants?

9 / 30

What is the project manager's goal in terms of project cost control?

10 / 30

What is the purpose of the 'Checklist for the Management of the Architectural Project'?

11 / 30

What is one of the skills an effective project manager should have in order to communicate effectively?

12 / 30

What is one of the qualities an effective project manager should possess when it comes to modifying a project?

13 / 30

True or false: An effective project manager in architecture should have the ability to modify a project to meet a client's changing goals

14 / 30

What is one of the qualities an effective project manager should possess when it comes to giving credit to the design team?

15 / 30

What is one of the skills an effective project manager should have in order to achieve project goals?

16 / 30

What is one of the qualities an effective project manager should possess when it comes to time management?

17 / 30

Who is the person in an architect's office who directs and administers an architectural project?

18 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a task that should be done during project closeout?

19 / 30

For small projects, who may carry out several of the tasks themselves?

20 / 30

What should be done with project documents during project closeout?

21 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an effective project manager in the field of architecture?

22 / 30

True or false: An effective project manager in architecture should delegate all tasks to the design team

23 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the project manager?

24 / 30

Which of the following agreements is preferable for the project manager to use?

25 / 30

What does good project management involve?

26 / 30

What is the purpose of developing a database for future work?

27 / 30

What is an important characteristic of an effective project manager?

28 / 30

Which of the following is NOT crucial to the success of a project?

29 / 30

What type of scheduling technique is usually appropriate for scheduling architectural projects?

30 / 30

What is the main focus of the text?

Your score is

The average score is 61%

/30
29

2.3.2 Types of Construction Project Delivery

Please fill out the form to start the quiz. Good luck!

1 / 30

How are unit prices determined in a unit price contract?

2 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a potential construction manager (CM) for a project?

3 / 30

Which of the following is a criticism of Public Private Partnerships (P3s)?

4 / 30

What factors have contributed to the evolution of project delivery methods in the construction industry?

5 / 30

What does the term 'project delivery' refer to in the construction industry?

6 / 30

Which of the following is a characteristic of the Turnkey Development method?

7 / 30

What type of contract reimburses the contractor for the actual costs of the work, plus a fee based upon either an agreed-upon fixed sum or a percentage of the costs?

8 / 30

What is the purpose of pre-qualification of contractors?

9 / 30

True or false: Unit prices in a unit price contract are estimated and form the basis for payment of the contract price.

10 / 30

True or false: The guaranteed maximum price in a unit price contract can be adjusted only by Change Order.

11 / 30

In which delivery method is the contractor compensated for the actual costs of the work, plus a fee?

12 / 30

Which delivery method is NOT permitted by the regulations of most provincial associations of architects?

13 / 30

Which of the following is a common advantage of construction management as a project delivery method?

14 / 30

Which type of project delivery method is frequently replacing the cost plus method in construction?

15 / 30

What forms the basis for payment of the contract price in a unit price contract?

16 / 30

Which of the following is a responsibility of a construction manager (CM)?

17 / 30

Which project delivery method is the most commonly used in the construction industry?

18 / 30

Which of the following is an advantage of Public Private Partnerships (P3s)?

19 / 30

Which of the following is an advantage of the Design-Build project delivery method?

20 / 30

How can the guaranteed maximum price be adjusted in a unit price contract?

21 / 30

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the Design-Build project delivery method?

22 / 30

True or false: In a unit price contract, the contractor is paid a pre-determined price for each unit or quantity of work or material used in the project’s construction.

23 / 30

Which party bears all costs beyond the pre-determined maximum in a unit price contract?

24 / 30

Which of the following is a disadvantage of the Project Management delivery method?

25 / 30

True or false: The contract price in a unit price contract is the final sum of the product of each unit price stated in the schedule of prices multiplied by the actual quantity of each item incorporated in or made necessary by the project.

26 / 30

True or false: The actual quantities involved in a unit price contract are generally verified by independent inspection, such as a clerk of the works or a quantity surveyor.

27 / 30

What are some advantages of the Stipulated Price Contract (Design-Bid-Build) project delivery method?

28 / 30

In a cost plus contract, when does the work cease?

29 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of construction management as a project delivery method?

30 / 30

Who verifies the actual quantities involved in a unit price contract?

Your score is

The average score is 66%

/15
5

2.3.2 Appendix - Project Management

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1 / 15

In the CPM procedure, what is the purpose of determining critical paths?

2 / 15

What is the weakness of PERT?

3 / 15

How can critical tasks be determined for projects with fewer than 100 tasks?

4 / 15

What does Illustration A-4 in the Canadian Handbook of Practice for Architects show?

5 / 15

Which task cannot begin until task C2 (preliminary design) is partially completed?

6 / 15

What must a project manager consider when selecting a scheduling method?

7 / 15

Which of the following is referred to as float time in the context of project scheduling?

8 / 15

What is the main advantage of using a Gantt diagram for scheduling?

9 / 15

Which of the following is a limitation of the milestone chart method of scheduling?

10 / 15

What is the length of time required for an activity to be completed assuming all prerequisite tasks have been completed?

11 / 15

Which method of scheduling is commonly used for bidding and simple projects with a linear implementation?

12 / 15

Which method uses arrows or lines to graphically demonstrate the relationships between activities?

13 / 15

What is the purpose of project schedules?

14 / 15

What is the term used to describe the delay capacity in a project scheduling using CPM?

15 / 15

What is the purpose of developing a network schedule in project management?

Your score is

The average score is 35%

31

2.3.3 Cost Planning and Control

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1 / 30

What should architects do to ensure effective cost management?

2 / 30

True or false: An accelerated project schedule may be required by the owner to meet a critical date.

3 / 30

What should architects do if suitably experienced personnel are not available in-house for cost consulting?

4 / 30

True or false: The owner's requirements that can affect the construction budget should always be discussed and approved by the owner.

5 / 30

Which factor can contribute significantly to project costs due to design requirements?

6 / 30

Which class of cost estimate is prepared at an early stage in the project, when drawings are preliminary in nature, and includes a relatively large design contingency allowance?

7 / 30

What can be a factor contributing to delayed commencement during a time of inflation and currency fluctuations?

8 / 30

What is the purpose of cost control?

9 / 30

What is the owner's responsibility when they have requirements that can affect the construction budget?

10 / 30

Which factor affects the cost of construction in remote areas?

11 / 30

True or false: Inflation and currency fluctuations can contribute to the delayed commencement of a construction project.

12 / 30

What is the purpose of a construction cost estimate prepared by the architect?

13 / 30

Which of the following factors can affect construction costs?

14 / 30

Why is cost management more common today?

15 / 30

What can be a reason for delayed commencement of a construction project?

16 / 30

Which factor significantly influences the cost and construction procedures in Canada?

17 / 30

In which of the following circumstances may additional construction costs arise?

18 / 30

Which stage of the project is cost planning typically done?

19 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the architect in cost planning and control?

20 / 30

What should architects include in the project budget to account for inflation?

21 / 30

Which of the following circumstances may require an accelerated project schedule?

22 / 30

Which factor affects the cost of construction in a downtown core compared to a suburban location?

23 / 30

What environmental factors can affect construction costs?

24 / 30

Which method is particularly useful for architects during design development, when trade-offs between elements can be considered to improve the quality of the project without compromising the total budget?

25 / 30

Which method divides the building into major elements and provides a cost framework which is useful throughout the life of the project?

26 / 30

True or false: Winter conditions can result in additional construction costs due to delayed commencement of a project.

27 / 30

What is the purpose of historic data in cost estimating?

28 / 30

Which method is best left to quantity surveyors or those experienced in the calculation of building costs, unless the architect has extensive in-house records which have been analyzed and are easily accessible?

29 / 30

What is the purpose of using the Unit Use method for cost calculation?

30 / 30

True or false: The owner's responsibilities can impact the construction budget.

Your score is

0%

/30
36

2.3.4 Pre-Design

Please fill out the form to start the quiz. Good luck!

1 / 30

True or false: A functional program describes various criteria and data for a building project, including design objectives and spatial requirements?

2 / 30

What information does the architect require to analyze a site?

3 / 30

What is one of the challenges for architects in assembling a consultant team for pre-design services?

4 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a service that architects may need to engage outside consultants for during pre-design work?

5 / 30

What is a functional program for a building project?

6 / 30

What is a business case?

7 / 30

True or false: Master plans define long-term development strategies for specific sites, campuses or communities?

8 / 30

Why are architects required to provide pre-design services and undertake feasibility studies?

9 / 30

Which one of the following is NOT a term used to describe functional programs in architecture?

10 / 30

What does a feasibility study analyze?

11 / 30

What services are provided during the pre-design phase?

12 / 30

What is the purpose of a financial plan for a construction project?

13 / 30

How should the fees for pre-design services be determined?

14 / 30

What is one purpose of most functional programs?

15 / 30

What is the architect's main task in preparing a functional program?

16 / 30

What may be necessary after completing site analysis?

17 / 30

Which organization publishes the Standard Method for Measuring Floor Areas in Office Buildings?

18 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a consideration in the master planning process?

19 / 30

True or false: Pre-design services are provided after the schematic design phase?

20 / 30

What is the purpose of Schedule A in the Canadian Standard Form of Contract Agreement Between Client and Architect: RAIC Document Six?

21 / 30

True or false: A feasibility study analyzes economic, financial, market, regulatory, and technical issues?

22 / 30

What might a feasibility study for renewing buildings and infrastructures assess?

23 / 30

What are some components that can be included in the final functional program report?

24 / 30

What information does the architect need to develop approximate floor areas?

25 / 30

What is the main purpose of a functional program in architecture?

26 / 30

What factors might a feasibility study for a project incorporate?

27 / 30

True or false: Master plans define long-term development strategies for specific sites, campuses or communities?

28 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a typical source of conflict in a project?

29 / 30

What skills do architects need to provide pre-design services?

30 / 30

True or false: Financial issues are usually first addressed at the pre-design phase of a project?

Your score is

The average score is 74%

/30
30

2.3.5 Schematic Design

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1 / 30

Which one of the following is NOT a factor considered when evaluating design alternatives during the schematic design phase?

2 / 30

True or false: If the client's expectations cannot be met within the current budget, the architect should adjust the scope of work or the quality.

3 / 30

What is the architect's role in the schematic design phase?

4 / 30

What should the architect encourage to facilitate effective client participation and maintain trust between the parties during schematic design?

5 / 30

What type of documents are prepared during the schematic design phase?

6 / 30

What additional information may be included in a report prepared during the schematic design phase?

7 / 30

True or false: The architect should obtain written approval from the client before beginning design development.

8 / 30

During which phase of the project do the client's requirements and desires assume architectural form?

9 / 30

When should schematic design be delayed?

10 / 30

What is the purpose of preparing preliminary cost estimates during the schematic design phase?

11 / 30

What is the role of the architect and the client in schematic design?

12 / 30

What elements are synthesized in the architectural concept during schematic design?

13 / 30

Which stage of the design process allows the architect to fine-tune elements of the client's requirements and adjust spatial relationships before beginning design development?

14 / 30

True or false: The architect should provide multiple design alternatives during the schematic design phase.

15 / 30

True or false: The architect should prepare preliminary cost estimates based on the proposed building's area or volume.

16 / 30

What is the purpose of space diagrams in the preliminary analysis of a new commission?

17 / 30

What is an Integrated Design Approach in schematic design?

18 / 30

What is included in the design documents during the schematic design phase?

19 / 30

What may be required if the client's expectations cannot be met within the current budget during the schematic design phase?

20 / 30

What is the main purpose of schematic design?

21 / 30

What is the ideal outcome of the schematic design phase?

22 / 30

What does the Integrated Design Process help ensure?

23 / 30

What is the purpose of preparing design alternatives at the schematic design stage?

24 / 30

What is the responsibility of the client in providing information at the schematic design stage?

25 / 30

What is the purpose of the architect reviewing the documents with the client and obtaining written approval before beginning design development?

26 / 30

True or false: The architect should consider the ratio of net to gross floor areas when evaluating design alternatives.

27 / 30

What new software developments allow architects to undertake preliminary modeling, develop rapid prototypes, and document the building as a three-dimensional model?

28 / 30

What is necessary to consider during the preliminary analysis of a new commission?

29 / 30

During the schematic design phase, the architect usually facilitates the design team, including which of the following engineers?

30 / 30

What is the purpose of integrating appropriate site development, building envelope characteristics, and mechanical and electrical systems at the schematic design stage?

Your score is

The average score is 80%

/30
26

2.3.6 Design Development

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1 / 30

True or false: A design report is primarily used by the architect's office staff to better understand the design.

2 / 30

True or false: The design report serves as a record for the project and can help with lengthy approval periods or delays.

3 / 30

Which of the following information should the architect provide to the structural engineer in order to commence design development?

4 / 30

During the design development phase, the architect is responsible for which of the following tasks?

5 / 30

What is the purpose of the lighting layouts developed by the architect and the electrical engineer during the design development phase?

6 / 30

During which phase of the project is the selected scheme refined and developed in more detail?

7 / 30

Who may find a design report useful?

8 / 30

True or false: The design report may include an analysis of the building's compliance with the building code.

9 / 30

What do engineers and some clients often refer to as 'design'?

10 / 30

What is the role of the consultants during the design development phase?

11 / 30

What permits and approvals are typically obtained during the design development phase?

12 / 30

Which of the following is a purpose of an outline specification?

13 / 30

Which document describes the proposed materials and construction systems in general terms?

14 / 30

What is the term used to refer to the combination of the schematic design phase and the design development phase?

15 / 30

What type of information does the mechanical engineer require to undertake design development?

16 / 30

True or false: The design report is a contractual requirement for all projects.

17 / 30

True or false: An outline specification provides detailed information about the proposed materials and construction systems.

18 / 30

When should collaboration with the engineers begin for a project?

19 / 30

During the design development phase, the electrical engineer resolves design issues related to which of the following systems?

20 / 30

During the design development phase, what does the mechanical engineer select and resolve?

21 / 30

What is a design report?

22 / 30

What is one of the key factors that the architect should review when assessing the maintenance and durability of various materials during design development?

23 / 30

Which of the following consultants may be involved at the design development stage of a project?

24 / 30

What information does the electrical engineer require to undertake the design development documents?

25 / 30

In which language is the distinction between the three phases of design (schematic design, design development, and construction documentation) clear?

26 / 30

What is often included in a design report?

27 / 30

Why is it advantageous to obtain initial approval of the early concept from the client before proceeding to more specific design details?

28 / 30

What type of estimate may be prepared during the design development phase by the architect or a cost consultant?

29 / 30

What is the purpose of refining the design during the design development phase?

30 / 30

What are some design issues that must be resolved with the structural engineer and the members of the design team through an Integrated Design Process?

Your score is

The average score is 66%

/30
14

2.3.7 Construction Documents - Drawings

Please fill out the form to start the quiz. Good luck!

1 / 30

Which of the following is the purpose of using schedules in architectural drawings?

2 / 30

Where should notes, symbols, and dimensions be expressed on the drawings?

3 / 30

True or false: The method of dimensioning in architectural drawings should correspond to the sequence of construction.

4 / 30

What is the purpose of drawings in construction?

5 / 30

What should the project architect do at the start of the construction documents phase?

6 / 30

What is the purpose of including all plans, elevations, sections, and details in architectural drawings?

7 / 30

When should client approval of the design development documents be obtained?

8 / 30

What is the method of dimensioning in architectural drawings based on?

9 / 30

What are some challenges that the profession faces when using Building Information Modeling (BIM)?

10 / 30

How can changes requested during the preparation of working drawings affect the project?

11 / 30

What is the purpose of a title block on a drawing?

12 / 30

What do elevations and vertical sections indicate in architectural drawings?

13 / 30

What is the primary method for producing working drawings?

14 / 30

In what situations may working drawings need to be more detailed?

15 / 30

What is the purpose of the final set of working drawings and the Project Manual?

16 / 30

Which of the following is NOT necessary when preparing working drawings?

17 / 30

Who are the primary users of drawings in the construction industry?

18 / 30

What does BIM stand for?

19 / 30

True or false: Including too many notes in drawings can help to simplify and clarify repetitive information.

20 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of switching from 2D CAD to BIM?

21 / 30

True or false: Drawings should only provide a generic name for materials or products, and should not include specific dimensions.

22 / 30

How should drawings identify a material or product in architectural drawings?

23 / 30

Which organization has created their own drawing standards?

24 / 30

True or false: Plans indicate the height of buildings, while elevations and vertical sections indicate the length and width.

25 / 30

True or false: Schedules, such as room finish and door schedules, should be used to identify the material or components of repetitive items.

26 / 30

What is the role of working drawings for bidders in the construction industry?

27 / 30

Which of the following is true about working drawings?

28 / 30

Who is usually responsible for planning the production of working drawings in a construction project?

29 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a potential benefit of using BIM software in architectural practice?

30 / 30

What is the purpose of using standard symbols on the plans?

Your score is

The average score is 62%

/30
14

2.3.8 Construction Documents - Specifications

Please fill out the form to start the quiz. Good luck!

1 / 30

What is the purpose of performance specifications?

2 / 30

Which method of specifying construction projects allows the contractor freedom in choice of materials and method?

3 / 30

What types of components are best described by performance specifications?

4 / 30

How should specifications be read and interpreted in relation to the construction documents?

5 / 30

What is the purpose of the Three-Part SectionFormat™ for Construction Specifications?

6 / 30

What is the purpose of outline or preliminary specifications?

7 / 30

What is the most widely used master specification in Canada?

8 / 30

Which one of the following is true about the Series 00 of Documents in MasterFormat™?

9 / 30

When do specification writers often enter the process?

10 / 30

Which of the following is NOT included in the term 'specifications' in the construction industry?

11 / 30

What is the National Master Specification (NMS)?

12 / 30

What is the purpose of using the proprietary method of specifying construction projects?

13 / 30

True or false: The NMS is a library of construction specification sections written in contract specification format, produced by the federal government in consultation with the private sector.

14 / 30

What does the term 'Project Manual' refer to in the construction industry?

15 / 30

True or false: The National Master Specification (NMS) is the most widely used master specification in the construction industry of Canada.

16 / 30

True or false: The architect assumes responsibility for the specifications issued from the architectural practice, regardless of the source.

17 / 30

What is a potential drawback of using prescriptive specifications?

18 / 30

True or false: The architect assumes responsibility for the specifications issued from the architectural practice, regardless of the source.

19 / 30

What is the role of the NMS Secretariat?

20 / 30

When might an architect specify one particular product or system as a basis of the specification?

21 / 30

True or false: Specification writers often enter the process during the production of the working documents.

22 / 30

Who is responsible for the specifications issued from the architectural practice?

23 / 30

Which organization produces the MasterFormat™ system?

24 / 30

When should the Three-Part SectionFormat™ be used in writing specifications sections?

25 / 30

Which of the following is NOT a function of specifications?

26 / 30

What is the purpose of using the MasterFormat™ system?

27 / 30

True or false: The NMS Secretariat is part of Public Work.

28 / 30

What is the main purpose of master specifications?

29 / 30

What is the purpose of referencing standards and manuals in specifications?

30 / 30

Which type of specification is usually assembled to suit specific and similar kinds of projects?

Your score is

The average score is 66%

/35
16

2.3.9 Construction Procurement

Please fill out the form to start the quiz. Good luck!

1 / 35

True or false: It is not necessary to issue complete sets of bid documents.

2 / 35

What must the architect and the client determine at the outset of the project?

3 / 35

What is the recommended approach for receiving bids in multiple locations?

4 / 35

What does the Supreme Court of Canada ruling state about accepting a non-compliant bid?

5 / 35

What is the recommended timeframe for issuing the last addendum before bid closing?

6 / 35

How should the time for bid closure be specified?

7 / 35

What is the purpose of obtaining a deposit when obtaining bid documents?

8 / 35

Which of the following is NOT a method of selecting contractors and awarding construction contracts?

9 / 35

What is the typical range for the amount of a bid bond?

10 / 35

What is the recommended form for a bid bond?

11 / 35

How does the length of the bid period vary?

12 / 35

According to the text, what is the purpose of a 'privilege clause' in a bid package?

13 / 35

When is it recommended to close bids following a statutory holiday?

14 / 35

Why is it important to issue complete sets of bid documents?

15 / 35

What type of construction contract is based on mutual trust and full disclosure of all estimates and quotations?

16 / 35

True or false: Bids should be received 'at' the specified hour, according to CCDC 23.

17 / 35

Which type of contract is described as simpler to manage in the text?

18 / 35

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of addenda in bid documents?

19 / 35

What is the name of the guide that provides a complete guide to the bid process?

20 / 35

True or false: A well-worded bid closure instruction should include the date and time.

21 / 35

What should architects indicate in the Instructions to Bidders when preparing tender documents?

22 / 35

Which of the following days is NOT recommended for bid closure?

23 / 35

What information should be included in the Notice of Tender?

24 / 35

According to CCDC 23, it is not recommended that bids close on a Friday or a Monday, nor immediately following or preceding a statutory holiday. Usually, the time for closing bids is mid- to late-afternoon. It is important to specify the time as 'before' the hour, not 'on' or 'at' the hour.

25 / 35

Which type of bond guarantees that claimants will be paid for labor and materials provided to the contractor for use on the project?

26 / 35

Which document should the architect refer to in order to prepare the bid package?

27 / 35

What is the purpose of a performance bond?

28 / 35

Which of the following is an example of a well-worded bid closure instruction?

29 / 35

According to the text, what is one of the architect's responsibilities under the Canadian Standard Form of Contract Between Client and Architect: RAIC Document Six?

30 / 35

True or false: It is recommended to close bids on a Friday or a Monday, as per CCDC 23.

31 / 35

What is the purpose of a bond in the construction industry?

32 / 35

Which type of tender call is frequently used when the project involves public funds?

33 / 35

Which of the following statements about bid depositories is true?

34 / 35

What is the purpose of pre-qualification in invited bids?

35 / 35

True or false: Bids should be received before mid-afternoon, as per CCDC 23.

Your score is

The average score is 68%

/39
12

2.3.10 Contract Administration - Office Function

Please fill out the form to start the quiz. Good luck!

1 / 39

What is the purpose of a hazardous materials assessment in construction?

2 / 39

Which term does CCDC recommend using for the form that alerts the contractor to a proposed change?

3 / 39

What are Change Orders required for?

4 / 39

What determines the level and nature of monitoring required during the construction period?

5 / 39

The contractor has the opportunity to submit a quotation for additional cost or credit when they receive the 'Proposed Change' form.

6 / 39

What are the office functions under contract administration?

7 / 39

What type of documentation can assist in providing a record of communication with all parties during the construction phase of a project?

8 / 39

What is the architect's role in correcting defective work according to CCDC 2?

9 / 39

What does the construction schedule reveal about the contractor?

10 / 39

What information does the architect need to obtain from the contractor prior to mobilization?

11 / 39

Which of the following is true about contract administration in the construction phase?

12 / 39

In a traditional design-bid-build contract, who assumes responsibility and control of the construction?

13 / 39

The 'Proposed Change' form is issued by the architect to alert the contractor of a proposed change.

14 / 39

What is the responsibility of the owner regarding the building permit?

15 / 39

What is the client's responsibility in a construction contract?

16 / 39

The contractor is required to submit a change directive when they receive the 'Proposed Change' form.

17 / 39

What type of contract is assumed in the chapter?

18 / 39

According to the text, what must the contractor verify before submitting shop drawings to the architect?

19 / 39

When should the architect issue a Change Order or Change Directive?

20 / 39

Which document outlines the roles and obligations of the contractor and the owner in a construction contract?

21 / 39

The purpose of the 'Proposed Change' form is to notify the contractor of a change and to allow them to submit a quotation for additional cost or time.

22 / 39

According to the text, what does the architect do with the documents submitted by the contractor at the end of construction?

23 / 39

What is the process usually started by the issuance of the 'Proposed Change' form?

24 / 39

What is the relationship between the architect and the contractor during the construction phase?

25 / 39

What are some of the terms used to refer to the form that alerts the contractor to a proposed change?

26 / 39

What does the contractor have an opportunity to submit when they receive the 'Proposed Change' form?

27 / 39

The 'Proposed Change' form is recommended by CCDC to be used in all construction contracts.

28 / 39

According to the text, what is the role of the contractor in a construction project?

29 / 39

The term 'Proposed Change' is recommended by CCDC for the form that alerts the contractor to a proposed change.

30 / 39

What are the architect's specific office functions during the contract administration phase?

31 / 39

The 'Proposed Change' form is used to provide the contractor an opportunity to request a change in time.

32 / 39

According to the text, what is the purpose of shop drawings?

33 / 39

What is the purpose of a Request for Information (RFI) during the construction phase of a building project?

34 / 39

The contractor is responsible for initiating the process by issuing the 'Proposed Change' form.

35 / 39

What is the purpose of the form known as 'Proposed Change'?

36 / 39

The term 'Change Order' is used interchangeably with 'Proposed Change' in the text.

37 / 39

The purpose of the 'Proposed Change' form is to obtain approval from the contractor for a proposed change.

38 / 39

According to the text, what is required to be submitted by the contractor at the end of construction?

39 / 39

According to the text, what is the architect responsible for in the construction process?

Your score is

The average score is 72%

/40
11

2.3.11 Contract Administration - Field Function

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1 / 40

Which term refers to a 'close examination' of the construction work?

2 / 40

What is the purpose of a pre-construction meeting?

3 / 40

Field reviews by engineers are not critical to the success of a building.

4 / 40

Who is responsible for preparing the minutes of the site meetings?

5 / 40

The architect is responsible for preparing Certificates for Payment.

6 / 40

The architect is not responsible for complying with occupational health and safety legislation.

7 / 40

When should field reviews be conducted?

8 / 40

What information should be included in a field review report?

9 / 40

During the construction phase, the architect's responsibility is to oversee the construction work on site. True or False?

10 / 40

What is the difference between 'supervision' and 'inspection' in the context of contract administration?

11 / 40

Which discipline is more involved near the completion of construction?

12 / 40

What are mock-ups used for?

13 / 40

Who is responsible for complying with the rules, regulations, and practices required by occupational health and safety legislation?

14 / 40

The architect is not required to establish an on-site presence during site meetings.

15 / 40

What is the purpose of the architect's field review work?

16 / 40

Who is responsible for the quality of construction?

17 / 40

How should the architect promote good communication with the contractor?

18 / 40

When may an architect conduct a field review after a change in weather?

19 / 40

What tools should the architect bring to the site?

20 / 40

During the construction phase of a project, the architect is responsible for?

21 / 40

According to the text, what is the architect's responsibility in tort?

22 / 40

The architect is responsible for coordinating the field functions of the engineering and other consultants.

23 / 40

Which term refers to the architect's responsibility to determine if the work is in general conformity with the contract documents during the various stages of construction?

24 / 40

When should the architect schedule site visits?

25 / 40

The minutes of the site meetings should indicate the actions required and who is responsible for the action.

26 / 40

Who is responsible for construction safety at the workplace?

27 / 40

What is the purpose of conducting field reviews before work is covered up?

28 / 40

The architect relies on the consultants to determine the value or percentage of work completed by each respective discipline.

29 / 40

When should the minutes of the site meetings be distributed?

30 / 40

When should the architect establish a schedule for construction of mock-ups?

31 / 40

The architect is always responsible for preparing the minutes of the site meetings.

32 / 40

Regularly scheduled site meetings serve which of the following purposes?

33 / 40

Field review reports should be submitted by consultants in a format similar to that used by the architect.

34 / 40

Regularly scheduled site meetings are essential for good communication between all parties involved in a construction project.

35 / 40

Which of the following is NOT a reason for the architect or consultants to observe work in the plant?

36 / 40

Where is the construction site referred to as 'Place of the Work' in CCDC documents?

37 / 40

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of the architect during the construction phase?

38 / 40

Who is usually the prime or 'managing and coordinating' consultant?

39 / 40

What is the role of engineers and other consultants in the field review process?

40 / 40

What should the architect do upon completion of a field review?

Your score is

The average score is 71%

/30
14

2.3.12 Take-Over Procedures, Commissioning, and Post Occupancy Evaluation

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1 / 30

Which of the following is the purpose of the architect's periodic reviews of the project following occupancy?

2 / 30

Who is responsible for reviewing defects and deficiencies during the warranty period?

3 / 30

During the first year of operation, why is it usually necessary to confirm the performance of certain mechanical or electrical systems?

4 / 30

True or false: The architect's periodic reviews of the project following occupancy are conducted to ensure that all systems are operating properly?

5 / 30

Who does the architect conduct the periodic reviews with?

6 / 30

Who often provides commissioning as an additional service?

7 / 30

What is commissioning?

8 / 30

What is the purpose of publishing the certificate of substantial performance in a construction trade newspaper?

9 / 30

When does commissioning typically start?

10 / 30

Which step in the take-over process involves the certification of substantial performance of the work?

11 / 30

Which of the following is a normal part of the architect's basic services performed at the end of contract administration?

12 / 30

True or false: The architect is responsible for arranging inspection and verification of mechanical or electrical systems during the first year of operation?

13 / 30

What should be included in the bid documents prepared with input from the commissioning agent?

14 / 30

True or false: During the first year of operation, it is usually necessary to confirm the performance of mechanical or electrical systems that are used primarily during a certain season of the year?

15 / 30

According to the text, when is the date on the certificate usually the date of deemed completion of the contract?

16 / 30

What is the purpose of confirming the client's understanding of the operations manuals and programmed default settings?

17 / 30

What should be in place before beginning a building operator training program?

18 / 30

What is the purpose of the holdback monies in a construction project?

19 / 30

What does the outstanding amount in some provincial lien acts represent?

20 / 30

What may void portions of the contractor's obligation under the contract?

21 / 30

Which one of the following best describes the role of the Authority Having Jurisdiction in the issuance of an Occupancy Permit?

22 / 30

Which of the following is a key factor in the systems verification process?

23 / 30

Which one of the following is NOT a purpose of the commissioning process?

24 / 30

True or false: Alterations to any work by the client's own forces during the warranty period may void portions of the contractor's obligation under the contract?

25 / 30

What does the architect prepare a certificate for?

26 / 30

What is the role of a commissioning agent in large and complex projects?

27 / 30

What is the purpose of the OAA/OGCA Take-Over Procedures, Document 100?

28 / 30

What can happen if systems verification is not conducted properly?

29 / 30

When does the warranty period for the project commence?

30 / 30

True or false: The architect's periodic reviews are conducted with the client or the client's personnel to determine their understanding of the operations manuals and programmed default settings?

Your score is

The average score is 72%

/35
10

2.4 Sample Forms for the Management of the Project

2.4 Sample Forms for the Management of the Project

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1 / 35

True or false: The shop drawings and samples log includes information such as the title of the drawing, drawing number, and date of preparation.

2 / 35

Which of the following is the purpose of a transmittal?

3 / 35

Which form is used to propose a change in the project?

4 / 35

What is a transmittal used for?

5 / 35

According to the text, what is the responsibility of the Contractor regarding shop drawings?

6 / 35

Which form should architects refer to for information on the use and application of the Application for Payment?

7 / 35

What is the purpose of an Addendum in the bidding phase of a project?

8 / 35

Which section of the Handbook provides only the basic forms used to manage most architectural projects?

9 / 35

What is the purpose of Field Review Reports?

10 / 35

What is the purpose of the forms in this section of the Handbook?

11 / 35

Which forms are NOT duplicated in the Handbook because they are available from the Canadian Construction Documents Committee (CCDC)?

12 / 35

Which form is used to notify unsuccessful bidders of the status of the project and provide information on returning bid documents and bid bonds?

13 / 35

True or false: The shop drawings and samples log does not include the date of referral for review.

14 / 35

True or false: The shop drawings and samples log does not include the status of the shop drawing or sample.

15 / 35

Which form combines a proposed change and a change order?

16 / 35

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the shop drawings and samples log?

17 / 35

Which form should architects refer to for information on the use and application of the Certificate for Payment?

18 / 35

According to the text, what is the purpose of the shop drawing stamp?

19 / 35

What information should be included in a Summary of Bids form?

20 / 35

True or false: The shop drawings and samples log does not include the date that the shop drawing or sample is returned.

21 / 35

True or false: The MasterFormat™ number in the shop drawings and samples log represents the product or system being depicted.

22 / 35

True or false: The shop drawings and samples log includes the date that the shop drawing is forwarded to the general contractor.

23 / 35

What does the status 'reviewed as noted' in the shop drawings and samples log indicate?

24 / 35

Which of the following is NOT included in the shop drawings and samples log?

25 / 35

Which form should architects refer to for information on the use and application of the Certificate of Substantial Performance?

26 / 35

Who is responsible for preparing the shop drawings in the shop drawings and samples log?

27 / 35

What does the MasterFormat™ number in the shop drawings and samples log represent?

28 / 35

True or false: The shop drawings and samples log does not include the name of the consultant to whom the drawing or sample was referred for review.

29 / 35

Which form should architects refer to for information on the use and application of the Schedule of Values and Work Performed?

30 / 35

True or false: The shop drawings and samples log includes the date that the shop drawing or sample is returned.

31 / 35

According to the text, what is the purpose of the cover letter for shop drawings?

32 / 35

Which of the following information can be found in the shop drawings and samples log?

33 / 35

What information should be included in a Project Team Directory?

34 / 35

True or false: The shop drawings and samples log provides information on the status of the shop drawing or sample.

35 / 35

True or false: The shop drawings and samples log provides information on the company or trade responsible for preparing the drawing.

Your score is

The average score is 75%